Bill Mitchell

@mitchellvii ↗

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Last Checked March 5, 2020

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Fri Jan 17 17:52:22 +0000 2020

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Bill Mitchell @mitchellvii

How is it that Trump won Independents by 4 points in 2016, yet by inauguration day, Gallup all all other pollsters claimed Independents now opposed him 2:1? Have Independents EVER been 40% of turnout? No, not even close. And yet, they are always sampled as such. — PolitiTweet.org

Posted Jan. 17, 2020 Hibernated

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Bill Mitchell @mitchellvii

If, in fact, as polls consistently "find," Republicans represent only 24-26% of the electorate and Independents, who clock in at 40% oppose Trump 2:1 - HOW is Trump president? — PolitiTweet.org

Posted Jan. 17, 2020 Hibernated

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Bill Mitchell @mitchellvii

Is it possible that, having been discovered using D+12 and D+16 samples in 2016 polls, pollsters decided to "hide the bias" by suddenly hiding the Democrat oversample as a magically exploded Independent sample? — PolitiTweet.org

Posted Jan. 17, 2020 Hibernated